Skeletal System
Answers are provided below each question

1) These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:
    a) Haversian canals
    b) canaliculi
    c) perforating canals
    d) osteocytes
    e) lacunae


2) The two pairs of bones that make up the hard palate are the right and left:
    a) zygomatic and temporal
    b) palatine and maxillae
    c) maxillae and zygomatic
    d) maxillae and mandible


3) The two bones that make up the posterior nasal septum are the:
    a) nasal and lacrimal
    b) inferior nasal choncae and vomer
    c) vomer and ethmoid
    d) ethmoid and sphenoid


4) Which of the following is the most serious or life-threatening:
    a) deviated nasal septum
    b) sinusitis
    c) damaged cribriform plate
    d) damaged or cleft palate
    e) ruptured bursae


5) "Articulations" refers to:
    a) broken bones
    b) the study of individual bones
    c) bone growth and remodeling
    d) structures on bones where muscles attach
    e) joints


6) Which of the following bone is not part of the cranium:
    a) sphenoid
    b) palatine
    c) ethmoid
    d) occipital


7) Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:
    a) femur
    b) sternum
    c) mandible
    d) sacrum


8) The "Hunchback" of Notre Dame probably suffered from:
    a) cleft palate
    b) scoliosis
    c) kyphosis
    d) lordosis
    e) spina bifida


9) Incomplete closure of the vertebral column results in:
    a) spina bifida
    b) scoliosis
    c) sinusitis
    d) kyphosis
    e) lordosi

10) The thickened cartilage "cushions" found in the knee and vertebral joints that absorb compression are:
    a) the menisci
    b) the bursae
    c) the ligaments
    d) the synovial capsules
    e) epiphyseal plates


11) Which of the following does not describe synovial joints:
    a) bones held together by cartilage
    b) joint surfaces of bones covered with articulating cartilage
    c) has joint cavity
    d) has 2-layered joint capsule
    e) most freely movable of joints


12) A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is a:
    a) cruciate
    b) bursae
    c) collateral
    d) patellar


13) Which of the following is least likely to require arthroscopic surgery:
    a) removal of a torn meniscus in the knee
    b) removal of torn articular cartilage in the knee
    c) repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee
    d) repair of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in the knee


14) The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains:
    a) chondroitin sulfate
    b) hydroxyapatite
    c) osteoblasts
    d) blood vessels
    e) synovial fluid


15) This hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone and the increase in blood calcium levels:
    a) growth hormone
    b) estrogen
    c) parathyroid hormone
    d) calcitonin


  1. Which of the following cell types is responsible for synthesizing the organic component of cartilage matrix?
    1. Chondrocytes
    2. Osteoblasts
    3. Osteocytes
    4. Chondroclasts
    5. 2 of the above
  2. Which of the following hormones acts to stimulate osteoclast activity and thus increase bone resorption?
    1. Growth Hormone
    2. Parathyroid Hormone
    3. Calcitonin
    4. Insulin
    5. Creatinine
  3. Which of the following statements about bone is TRUE?
    1. Bone is the hardest tissue in the body
    2. Bone is a dynamic tissue which changes in response to hormonal demands
    3. Bone has an organic component of hydroxyapatite
    4. Bone contains 95% of the body's calcium in the form of hydroxyapatite crystals
  4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bone tissue?
    1. Periosteum
    2. Calcium phosphate crystals
    3. Lacunae that contain 2-4 cells each
    4. None of the above
  5. The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
    1. Collagen fibers
    2. Chondrocytes
    3. Proteoglycans
    4. Lacunae
    5. Perichondrium
  6. The organic component of bone matrix is produced by:
    1. Chondrocytes
    2. Chondroblasts
    3. Osteoblasts
    4. Osteocytes
    5. Osteoclasts
  7. Which of the following statements about osteoblasts is TRUE?
    1. Osteoblasts are quiescent, inactive bone cells
    2. Osteoblasts secrete osteoid, which contains only the inorganic component of bone matrix
    3. Osteoblasts respond to parathyroid hormone
    4. Osteoblasts maintain contact with each other via cytoplasmic processes known as canaliculi
  8. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for bone resorption?
    1. Osteoblast
    2. Osteocyte
    3. Osteoclast
    4. Chondrocyte
    5. Chondroblast

  9. Which of the following cell types extend cytoplasmic processes through canaliculi?
    1. Osteoclasts
    2. Osteocytes
    3. Osteoblasts
    4. Endothelial cells
    5. Fibroblasts
  10. Which of the following is absent in fibrocartilage?
    1. Matrix
    2. Chondrocytes
    3. Collagenous fibers
    4. Lacunae
    5. Perichondrium
  11. Removal of the organic component of bone matrix makes the bone...
    1. Lose its shape
    2. Stretchable but not flexible
    3. Flexible but not stretchable
    4. Smaller
    5. More fragile and more readily breakable
  12. Which of the following can be found in cartilage but not bone tissue?
    1. Lacunae
    2. Protein fibers
    3. Blood vessels
    4. Chondroitin
  13. These cells are located in bone tissue:
    1. Chondroblasts
    2. Osteocytes
    3. Fibroblasts
    4. Chondrocytes
    5. More than one of the above
  14. The dense connective tissue covering the outer surface of bone diaphyses is known as the:
    1. Perichondrium
    2. Periosteum
    3. Endosteum
    4. Epiosteum
    5. Exofibrium
  15. Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone?
    1. Clavicle
    2. Humerus
    3. Patella
    4. Femur
    5. Popliteal
  16. These 2 components of bone are responsible for its hardness and pliability.
    1. Osteoclasts and collagen
    2. Mineralized salts and osteocytes
    3. Mineralized salts and collagen
    4. Collagen and elastin
    5. Collagen and metastatin
  17. A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the:
    1. Epiphysis
    2. Metaphysis
    3. Diaphysis
    4. Arthrosis
    5. Atalaphysis
  18. Yellow marrow consists of ______________ tissue.

  19. Chondroblasts produce ____________________.
  20. _____________ carry blood vessels along the long axis of a bone.
    1. Volkmann's canals
    2. Canaliculi
    3. Lacunae
    4. Foramina
    5. Haversian canals
  21. The cell type that maintains the previously formed bone matrix is the:
    1. Osteoclast
    2. Osteocyte
    3. Osteoblast
    4. Fibrocyte
  22. Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:
    1. An indication of microcephaly
    2. Frontal sinuses
    3. Epiphyseal plates
    4. Cribifrom plates
    5. Fontanelles
  23. Endochondral and intramembranous are 2 mechanisms of:
    1. Bone remodeling
    2. Embryonic skeletal ossification
    3. Negative feedback
    4. Cartilage resorption
  24. Which of the folllowing is NOT a cranial suture?
    1. Epiphyseal
    2. Lambdoidal
    3. Coronal
    4. Sagittal
    5. Squamous
40) The bones of the upper arm are classified as _____ bones.
  A) short
  B) long
  C) irregular
  D) flat
41) The patella is classified as a/an _____ bone by some anatomists.
  A) short
  B) flat
  C) sesamoid
  D) irregular
42) The long shaft of a bone such as the femur is called its ______.
  A) epiphysis
  B) epiphyseal plate
  C) periosteum
  D) diaphysis
43) The articular ends of long bones are comprised of _____ tissue.
  A) hyaline cartilage
  B) fibrous
  C) hematopoietic
  D) bone
44) Spongy bone is also referred to as _____ bone.
  A) cancellous
  B) compact
  C) cortical
  D) fibrous
45) The area of a bone that produces most of the hematopoietic tissue is the _____.
  A) periosteum
  B) bone marrow
  C) process
  D) endosteum
46) The center of each osteon contains the _____.
  A) osteoblasts
  B) Volkmann canal
  C) Haversian canal
  D) lacunae
47) The _____ represents an area for growth in the length of a long bone.
  A) diaphysis
  B) epiphysis
  C) epiphyseal disk
  D) periosteum
48) The _____ contain enzymes capable of breaking down the calcium matrix of bone tissue.
  A) osteoblasts
  B) osteoclasts
  C) fibroblasts
  D) osteogenic cells
49) When does ossification begin in a developing fetus?
  A) 6th month
  B) 30th day
  C) 3rd month
  D) 4th month
50) During remodeling, about _____% of bone calcium is exchanged each year.
  A) 1%
  B) 4%
  C) 10%
  D) 0.5%
51) The main factor which facilitates the movement of calcium through a cell membrane is _____.
  A) growth hormone
  B) the amount of calcium
  C) osmotic pressure
  D) vitamin D
52) Vitamin D deficiency in an adult causes the condition known as _____.
  A) rickets
  B) osteoporosis
  C) osteomalacia
  D) giantism
53) The most important vitamin required for proper bone resorption and modeling is _____.
  A) vitamin A
  B) vitamin B12
  C)vitamin  C
  D)vitamin  D
54) An excess of pituitary growth hormone will result in a condition of _____ if first noted in an adult.
  A) dwarfism
  B) acromegaly
  C) giantism
  D) osteoporosis
55) The _____ hormones have an effect of increasing bone and muscle mass, especially evident at puberty.
  A) growth
  B) thyroid
  C) sex
  D) adrenal
56) An increase in the mass of bone tissue caused by physical stress is termed bone _____.
  A) hypertrophy
  B) osteomalacia
  C) atrophy
  D) cancer
57) A _____ fracture occurs when the broken bone is exposed to the outside by an opening in the skin.
  A) pathologic
  B) simple
  C) traumatic
  D) compound
58) Which is the first to occur following a bone fracture?
  A) migration of fibroblasts
  B) formation of a hematoma
  C) osteoblast proliferation
  D) development of granulation tissue
59) The callus that forms around a bone fracture is comprised of _____ tissue.
  A) bone
  B) hyaline cartilage
  C) fibrocartilage
  D) granulation
60) What is the final stage of healing following a fracture?
  A) osteoclast remodeling
  B) formation of granulation tissue
  C) formation of the callus
  D) osteoblast deposition
61) Which of the following produce erythrocytes in an adult?
  A) spleen
  B) liver
  C) bone marrow
  D) lymph nodes
62) The color of the red bone marrow is mainly the result of _____.
  A) blood
  B) hemoglobin
  C) fat tissue
  D) iron
63) Which of the following is not a main factor in the development of osteoporosis?
  A) diet deficient in calcium
  B) lack of exercise
  C) normal aging
  D) hormone deficiencies
64) Bone salts comprise ____% of the bone by weight.
  A) 10
  B) 50
  C) 70
  D) 98
65) There are a total of _____ bones in the entire skeleton.
  A) 200
  B) 80
  C) 126
  D) 206
66) Which of the following is an axial bone?
  A) femur
  B) vertebra
  C) ilium
  D) tibia
67) Which of the following is an appendicular bone?
  A) frontal
  B) ethmoid
  C) ulna
  D) sacrum
68) The pectoral girdle is comprised of the clavicle and _____.
  A) ribs
  B) ulna
  C) scapula
  D) os coxa
69) The following are terms related to the pelvic girdle except which one?
  A) os coxa
  B) innominate
  C) sacrum
  D) ilium
70) Which of the following does not belong with the rest?
  A) sacrum
  B) coccyx
  C) femur
  D) os coxa
71) The term for finger bones is _____.
  A) carpal
  B) phalange
  C) metacarpal
  D) tarsal
72) The coronal suture separates the _____ from parietal bones.
  A) frontal
  B) temporal
  C) occipital
  D) ethmoid
73) The cheekbone is called the _____ primarily.
  A) mandible
  B) zygomatic
  C) maxilla
  D) orbit
74) Which of the following is not a cranial bone?
  A) frontal
  B) lacrimal
  C) sphenoid
  D) ethmoid
75) What is the significance of the supraorbital foramen?
  A) attachment of muscles
  B) passage of blood vessels
  C) contain the eye
  D) is a bone articulation
76) Which bone contains the ear structures?
  A) parietal
  B) maxillary
  C) temporal
  D) sphenoid
77) Which bone has the mandibular fossa?
  A) mandible
  B) maxilla
  C) ethmoid
  D) temporal
78) Which sinus, or air cell area, has the potential of having a very serious and painful inflammation that could spread to the brain?
  A) sphenoid
  B) mastoid
  C) ethmoid
  D) frontal
79) The hard palate is made of the palatine and _____ bones.
  A) mandible
  B) ethmoid
  C) sphenoid
  D) maxilla
80) The _____ is the area that houses the teeth.
  A) mandibular fossa
  B) alveolar process
  C) maxillary fossa
  D) mental fossa
81) The spinal nerves will exit from the _____ foramina.
  A) spinal
  B) intervertebral
  C) transverse
  D) vertebral
82) The first vertebra is called the _____.
  A) axis
  B) atlas
  C) cervical
  D) dens
83) A lateral deviation of the alignment of the vertebral column is called a _____.
  A) kyphosis
  B) lordosis
  C) scoliosis
  D) slipped disk
84) The outer covering of each bone, made from fibrous connective tissue, is called the ________________.
  A) epiphysis
  B) diaphysis
  C) articular cartilage
  D) periosteum
85) Inside the epiphyses of each long bone, mostly ________________ can be found.
  A) compact bone
  B) spongy bone
  C) cartilage
  D) yellow marrow
86) Compact bone is made up of _______________ cemented together.
  A) osteocytes
  B) perforating canals
  C) osteons
  D) trabeculae
87) The cells that tear down and remodel bone are the ________________.
  A) osteoblasts
  B) osteocytes
  C) osteoclasts
  D) macrophages
88) Which of these factors is not necessary for normal bone growth and development?
  A) growth hormone
  B) high fat diet
  C) male and female sex hormones
  D) Vitamins A, C, and D
89) A soft spot in a newborn's skull is called a __________________.
  A) fontanel
  B) fovea
  C) foramen
  D) fissure
90) The prominent portions of the cheeks are made up of the _________________ bones.
  A) maxillary
  B) palatine
  C) lacrimal
  D) zygomatic
91) The ______________ of a typical vertebra projects posteriorly, and is thickest and most blunt in appearance in lumbar vertebrae.
  A) spinous process
  B) transverse process
  C) superior articulating process
  D) lamina
92) Two kinds of bones form the pectoral girdle: the clavicle and the ________________.
  A) humerus
  B) ulna
  C) scapula
  D) sternum
93) Another name for the wrist bones is _______________.
  A) metacarpals
  B) carpals
  C) phalanges
  D) tarsals
94) Which bone or bones does not/do not belong to the axial skeleton?
  A) skull
  B) ribs
  C) hip bone
  D) spinal column
95) The part of the bone that the articular cartilage covers directly is the _____.
  A) diaphysis
  B) endosteum
  C) epiphysis
  D) periosteum
96) The junction between the diaphysis and epiphysis in a growing bone is called the _____.
  A) endosteum
  B) periosteum
  C) epiphyseal disk
  D) articular cartilage
97) Which type of bone fracture occurs as an incomplete break in the bone?
  A) greenstick
  B) oblique
  C) compound
  D) simple
98) What is the last stage in the repair of a fracture?
  A) bony callus
  B) hematoma
  C) inflammation
  D) fibrocartilage callus
99) Which sinus inflammation in the skull could most commonly lead to deafness?
  A) frontal sinus
  B) maxillary sinus
  C) mastoid sinus
  D) ethmoid sinus
100) Which skull bone is not part of the cranium?
  A) frontal
  B) temporal
  C) ethmoid
  D) maxilla
101) Which bone contains the foramen magnum?
  A) parietal
  B) occipital
  C) sphenoid
  D) ethmoid
102) Bone is comprised of several tissues including cartilage and blood.
  A) True
  B) False
103) The canaliculi represent microscopic channels that were formed by the blood vessels in the bone.
  A) True
  B) False
104) The more collagen a bone has, the more rigid its structure.
  A) True
  B) False
105) Most of the skeleton in an embryo is cartilage.
  A) True
  B) False
106) Rickets is a condition that causes bones to bend because of the lack of vitamin D and calcium.
  A) True
  B) False
107) Active exercise can actually cause an increase in the mass and strength of bone.
  A) True
  B) False
108) Yellow bone marrow has lost its hematopoietic ability.
  A) True
  B) False
109) A low level of blood calcium could be the cause that increases the activity of the osteoclasts.
  A) True
  B) False
110) The mandibular foramen is located on the deep surface of the mandible and is a common dental anesthetic injection site.
  A) True
  B) False
111) The cervical flexure in the neck region will develop during a secondary process as the infants raise their heads.
  A) True
  B) False
112) The lower ribs are firmly attached to the xiphoid process.
  A) True
  B) False
113) The angle of the pubic arch is probably greater in the female than in the male.
  A) True
  B) False
114) The skeletal system plays key roles in the function of the circulatory system and immunity.
  A) True
  B) False
115) The soft spots on a newborn skull are called fontanels and are comprised of dense connective tissue.
  A) True
  B) False