Immune System
Answers are provided below each question

1. Which class of antibodies is abundant in body secretions?

A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgD.

MATCHING: (Items A through D may be used more than once.)

A. Delayed hypersensitivity
B. immediate hypersensitivity
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

2. B lymphocytes are involved.
3. IgE antibodies are involved.
4. Contact dermatitis, such as to poison ivy
5. Occurs within a period of 1 to 3 days
6. Fibroblasts involved
7. T lymphocytes are involved
8. Therapy - corticosteroids, such as cortisone
9. Allergic reactions, hay fever and asthma
10. Therapy - antihistamines and adrenergic drugs
11. An example of passive immunity
12. The antigens are called allergens.


13. In response to endotoxins released by certain bacteria, leukocytes may release:

A. antibodies
B. interferon
C. antigens
D. haptens
E. endogenous pyrogens.

14. Mast cell secretion during an immediate hypersensitivity reaction is stimulated when antigens combine with antibodies.

A. IgG
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgA
E. none of the preceding.

15. Active immunity may be produced by:

A. contracting a disease
B. receiving a vaccine
C. receiving gamma globulin injection
D. both A and B
E. both B and C.

16. B- lymphocytes combat bacterial and viral infections by secreting antibodies into the blood and lymph, providing what type of immunity?

A. humoral
B. nonspecific
C. antigenic
D. cell-mediated
E. none of the preceding.


A. killer T cells
B. mast ceils
C. plasma cells
D. macrophages

17. Antibodies
18. Perforins
19. Lysosomal enzymes
20. Histamine.


21. Antibody molecules are composed of ____ chains and ____ light chains

A. one /one
B. one/two
C. two / one
D. two / two
E. two / three.

22. A transplant between individuals belonging to different species is called a(n):

A. homograft
B. xenograft
C. isograft
D. autograft

23. A new-boom infant who receives IgA from its mother's milk develops:

A. naturally acquired active immunity
B. artificially acquired active immunity
C. naturally acquired passive immunity
D. artificially acquired passive immunity.

24. Which of the following is not true of the spleen?

A. it consists of red and white pulp
B. afferent lymphatic vessels enter on the convex side
C. it destroys old, and fragile red blood cells
D. located in the upper left portion of the abdominal cavil

25. Antibodies belong to a group of proteins called:

A. albumins
B. complement
C. interferons
D. alpha globulins
E. none of the preceding.

26. Helper and suppressor T lymphocytes:

A. attack invaders directly
B. help regulate the specific immune system
C. activate thymosin
D. may specialize into memory and plasma cells, respective!

27. Examples of immediate hypersensitivity are:

A. conjunctivitus
B. allergic rhinitis
C. allergic asthma
D. atopic dermatitis
E. all of the preceding


28. The graft least likely to be successful is the isograft
29. Large lymphatic nodes located in the wall of the ileum are called Peyer's patches
30. The tonsillar ring consists of the lingual, palatine, and pharyngeal tonsils
31. The thymus gland gradually enlarges after puberty
32. Poison ivy and poison oak can cause contact dermatitis
33. Oncology is the study of allergies
34. In an autoimmune disease, the immune system fails to recognize and tolerate self-antigens
35. In the study of allergies, antibodies are often called allergens
36. Interferons are polypeptides
37. Macrophages in the connective tissues are derived from neutrophils


38) Which statement regarding blood cells is correct:
    A) all blood cells originate in red bone marrow
    B) red bone marrow is the primary source of all blood cells except mast cells and  macrophage
    C) most types of leukocytes appear in equal amounts in the blood
    D) erythrocytes are produced in red marrow while leukocytes are produced primarily in lymph nodes
    E) erythrocytes produce erythropoetin which stimulates leukocyte production

39) Which of the following are organs where activation of T and B cells usually occurs:
    A) bone marrow
    B) thymus
    C) lymph nodes
    D) lymph vessels
    E) all of the above

40) Lymph fluid is returned into general circulation by draining into the:
    A) superior vena cava
    B) azygos and hemiazygos veins
    C) cisterna chyli
    D) subclavian veins
    E) left atrium

41) Nonspecific immunity includes all of the following except:
    A) immunoglobulin
    B) complement
    C) interferons
    D) neutrophils
    E) lysozyme

42) The most abundant immunoglobulin type found in blood is:
    A) IgA
    B) IgD
    C) IgG
    D) IgM
    E) IgY

43) Which of the following are most numerous in blood:
    A) lymphocytes
    B) neutrophils
    C) monocytes
    D) mast cells
    E) eosinophils 

44) What is the role of complement in the body's defense:
    A) it interferes with viral replication
    B) it is involved with antibody production
    C) it aids in antigen presentation
    D) it causes cell lysis
    E) it reduces inflammatory processes

45) The necessity of expressing most antigens in the context of MHC to initiate specific immune responses is termed:
    A) immune surveillance
    B) clonal selection
    C) MHC-restriction
    D) MHC-presentation
    E) tissue typing 

46) Which of the following is not a difference between IgG and IgM:
    A) IgM is a pentamer while IgG is a monomer
    B) IgM is found in lower amounts in serum
    C) IgG can cross the placenta, IgM usually does not
    D) IgG has two antigen-binding sites, IgM has ten
    E) IgG is formed early during the primary response, IgM is formed later

47) Which of the following organs is most essential for proper immune maturation and functioning:
    A) spleen
    B) liver
    C) thyroid
    D) thymus
    E) lymph nodes  

48) IgA deficiency is the most common immunoglobin deficiency, affecting about 1 in 800 persons. Typically, normal levels of other immunoglobulins are observed such that a lack of IgA is usually the only mesurable immune deficit in those patients. It is a genetic disorder resulting in a lack of IgA production and, though it has no cure, treatments generally involve controlling any associated infections that may occur as a result of this specific immune deficiency.  Which of the following would probably NOT be a disease that individuals with IgA deficiency would be susceptible to:
    A) recurring bacterial sinus infections
    B) chronic helminth parasitic infections
    C) chronic pulmonary infections
    D) gastrointestinal infections
    E) frequent tonsilitis

49) Which of the following cell types can be infected by HIV:
    A) B-cells
    B) T-helper cells
    C) macrophages
    D) glial cells
    E) all of the above

50) Corticosteriods (such as prednisone) are commonly prescribed drugs for certain immune-related disorders. Immunosuppresive drugs like this and others may decrease the severity of symptoms of all of the following except:
    A) graft-versus-host reaction
    B) systemic lupus erythematosus
    C) myasthenia gravis
    D) Type-I hypersensitivity reactions
    E) AIDS

51) Which of the following statements is false: "For almost every foreign antigen you may encounter...":
    A) ...a subset of B-cells already exists in your body specific to it.
    B) ...a subset of T-helper cells already exists in your body that expresses a T-cell receptor      specific to it.
    C) ...a subset of phagocytes already exists in your body that phagocytizes only that antigen.
    D) ...a subset of antigen-specific antibodies already exists, but are not yet produced in large         numbers.
    E) ...a subset of antigen-specific memory cells can be produced upon exposure to that antigen.

52) Which of the following is a cytokine produced by T-cells that acts mainly to activate B-cells to proliferate:
    A) Interleukin 1
    B) Interleukin 4
    C) Interleukin 10
    D) Interleukin 12
    E) Interferon gamma


  1. T lymphocytes gain immunocompetence in the:
    1. Thymus
    2. Thymus for T-helper cells and Bone marrow for T-killer cells
    3. Thymus for T-killer cells and Bone marrow for T-helper cells
    4. Bone marrow
  2. Antigen challenge usually occurs in the:
    1. Spleen and thymus
    2. Spleen and bone marrow
    3. Lymph nodes and thymus
    4. Spleen and lymph nodes
    5. Lymph nodes and bone marrow
  3. Consider the following: Plasma cells secrete antibodies and have a very well-developed smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
    1. This statement is true
    2. This statement is false because plasma cells do not secrete antibodies
    3. This statement is fasle because plasma cells have a very well-developed rough endoplasmic reticulum
    4. This statement is false because plasma cells have a very well-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum
  4. Vaccinations are an example of:
    1. Naturally-acquired active immunity
    2. Artificially-acquired active immunity
    3. Naturally-acquired passive immunity
    4. Artificially-acquired passive immunity
  5. Only _______ and ________ are able to activate complement.
    1. IgG and IgA
    2. IgG and IgE
    3. IgG and IgM
    4. IgG and IgD
  6. ____________________ are activated by antigen fragments complexed with MHC I proteins.
    1. CD8 T cells
    2. CD4 T cells
    3. CD8 B cells
    4. CD4 B cells
  7. An endocardial cell from the mitral valve of the heart would be exepcted to exhibit:
    1. Class I MHC proteins
    2. Class II MHC proteins
    3. Class III MHC proteins
    4. None of the above
  8. Which of the following antibodies is able to confer natural passive immunity?
    1. IgD
    2. IgE
    3. IgG
    4. IgM
  9. The formation of an antigen-antibody complex can lead to:
    1. Agglutination
    2. Neutralization
    3. Activation of complement

    a. I and II only
    b. II and III only
    c. I and III only
    d. I, II, and III

  10. A single IgA dimer can bind _____ antigens.

  11. An example of a primary lymphoid organ in humans is the:
    1. Thyroid
    2. Bursa of Fabricius
    3. Thymus
    4. Pancreas
    5. 2 of the above are correct
  12. Macrophages are examples of:
    1. Antibody-secreting T lymphocytes
    2. Antigen-presenting cells
    3. Activated plasma cells
    4. All of the above
  13. Which of the following are involved in B cell activation?
    1. Antigen
    2. T-helper cell
    3. Cytokine
    4. All of the above
  14. An IgG antibody and an IgM antibody that both bind to the same antigen will differ in their:
    1. Constant regions
    2. Variable regions
    3. Residual regions
    4. All of the above
  15. Perforins, lymphotoxins, and tumor necrosis factor are all released by:
    1. T-helper cells
    2. T-suppressor cells
    3. T-killer cells
    4. All of the above
  16. True or False: The lag time of the secondary immune response is greater than the lag time of the primary immune response.

  17. If Clare has no T-helper cells, she would have:
    1. Impaired cell-mediated immunity
    2. Impaired antibody-mediated immunity
    3. Both a and b
  18. Which of the following is true of lysozyme?
    1. It's an enzyme that phagocytoses bacteria
    2. It's often found in secretions that also contain IgA antibodies
    3. It's found in saliva but not in lachrymal fluid
    4. It plays a large role in specific immunity
  19. Which of the following are not phagocytes?
    1. Dust cells
    2. Eosinophils
    3. Microglia
    4. Mast cells
    5. Plasma cells
  20. Interferons:
    1. Are released by cells that are NOT infected by a virus
    2. Cause nearby cells to synthesize a protein which inhibits protein production
    3. Are NOT released by B lymphocytes
    4. Are only released by cardiac muscle cells

73) An infection results when pathogens _____.
A) enter a tissue area
B) enter the blood
C) grow and multiply
D) grow and cause damage
74) The fact that humans usually cannot contract a monkey pneumonia is explained by the theory of _____.
A) mechanical barriers
B) enzyme action
C) interferon
D) species resistance
75) A nonspecific class of chemicals that can inhibit viruses and cancer cell growth is _____.
A) antibodies
B) peptides
C) interferon
D) antigens
76) Which of the following is not an enzyme capable of destroying foreign bacteria?
A) pepsin
B) fibrin
C) lysozyme
D) lipase
77) The following are symptoms of inflammation except which one?
A) edema
B) hyperemia
C) exudate
D) dehydration
78) Which inflammatory response provides the greatest protection from the spread of pathogens?
A) antibody production
B) increase in leukocytes
C) fibroblast activity
D) redness and edema
79) The major pathologic feature of inflammation is _____.
A) fibroblast activity
B) capillary permeability
C) increase in blood
D) loss of function
80) What is the main inflammatory blood cell?
A) monocyte
B) neutrophil
C) lymphocyte
D) eosinophil
81) Which of these does not belong with the others?
A) monocytes
B) neutrophils
C) macrophage
D) histiocytes
82) Which of the following is a specific immune defense?
A) antibody
B) interferon
C) phagocytosis
D) all of these
83) Thymus derived lymphocytes comprise about _____% of the circulating lymphocytes.
A) 99
B) 10
C) 50
D) 75
84) Where are the greatest number of B cells found?
A) lymph node
B) circulating blood
C) bone marrow
D) lymph vessel
85) Antigens are foreign substances recognized by _____.
A) macrophages
B) T cells
C) B cells
D) all of these
86) Which of the following could not be antigenic by themselves?
A) protein
B) polysaccharides
C) haptens
D) glycolipids
87) Cell-mediated immunity is mainly a function of _____.
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) macrophages
D) neutrophils
88) Which of the following activates the cytotoxic T cells?
A) interferon
B) interleukin-1
C) interleukin-2
D) interleukin-4
89) Which factor stimulates B cell proliferation?
A) interleukin-1
B) interleukin-2
C) gamma-interferon
90) Which factor activates phagocytosis by monocytes?
A) cytokine
B) gamma-interferon
C) interleukin-4
D) lymphokine
91) T cells may produce _____, which is lethal to the target cells invaded by a pathogen.
A) interleukin-2
B) perforin
C) interferon
D) interleukin-3
92) Humoral immunity is mediated by the _____.
A) monocytes
B) T cells
C) B cells
D) neutrophils
93) The specific source of antibodies is the _____.
A) B cell
B) T cell
C) macrophage
D) plasma cell
94) Agammaglobinemia will seriously impair which ability?
B) T cell functions
C) antibody production
D) phagocytosis
95) The heavy chains of an immunoglobulin differ by having _____.
A) fewer lipids
B) more amino acids
C) more antigen sites
D) more sulfur atoms
96) Most of the circulating antibodies are derived from _____ class immunoglobulin.
A) A
B) E
C) G
D) D
97) The cross reaction that occurs between incompatible blood types is caused by _____ antibodies.
A) G
B) M
C) A
D) E
98) Which is the most common immunoglobulin for allergies?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgD
D) IgG
99) Erythrocytes clump together because of a _____ process.
A) clotting
B) agglutination
C) complement
D) precipitin
100) Which of the following processes can be initiated by any type of antibody fixation?
A) complement
B) neutralization
C) lysis phenomena
D) antibodies
101) The process which increases the chance of a neutrophil or monocyte engulfing an invader is _____.
A) phagocytosis
B) neutralization
C) complement fixation
D) opsonization
102) Tumors are most likely inactivated by _____ cells.
A) B
B) helper T
C) cytotoxic T
D) suppressor T
103) The increase in antibody levels in a second antigen exposure is due to the _____.
A) memory B cell
B) T cells
C) helper T cells
D) B clones
104) A vaccination is an example of _____ immunity.
A) naturally acquired active
B) artificially acquired active
C) artificially acquired passive
D) naturally acquired passive
105) Artificially acquired passive immunity could be the result of _____ injection.
A) antigen
B) toxoid
C) gamma globulin
D) cortisone
106) Naturally acquired passive immunity results from _____.
A) a bee sting
B) immunization
C) a flu shot
D) placental transfer
107) AIDS is caused by viruses that specifically invade _____.
A) the liver
B) B cells
C) T cells
D) neutrophils
108) Purified protein derivative is used to screen for _____.
B) leukemia
C) tuberculosis
D) syphilis
109) Which of the following cause the symptoms of an immediate allergy reaction?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) mast cells
D) neutrophils
110) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease of the thyroid gland?
A) Graves disease
C) scleroderma
D) rheumatoid arthritis
111) Which of these is not a non-specific defense mechanism?
A) bacteria
B) stomach pH
C) antibodies
D) skin sebaceous glands
112) The most numerous and main cell in the inflammatory response is the _____.
A) macrophage
B) neutrophil
C) monocyte
D) basophil
113) Substances called _____ can stimulate cells to produce proteins that block the replication of viruses.
A) antibodies
B) interferons
C) complement system
D) histamines


114) What is the role of the thymus in protecting the body against disease?
A) It houses decaying lymphocytes, recycling the nutrients within them.
B) It is the site of maturation of T lymphocytes and the production of thymosin.
C) It is the site of production and maturation of B lymphocytes.
D) Macrophages and monocytes are produced here and migrate to other tissues of the body.
115) Select the statement that is true about the spleen.
A) The spleen filters the lymph much the same way the lymph nodes filter the blood.
B) The spleen harbors eosinophils waiting for parasites to attack the body.
C) The spleen is the major site of red and white blood cell production in the adult.
D) The spleen filters the blood much the same way the lymph nodes filter the lymph.
116) Which of these is not a nonspecific defense against disease.
A) species resistance
B) phagocytosis
C) interferon
D) hair color and texture
117) Why do tissues swell during inflammation?
A) Tissues swell during inflammation because of the volume of bacteria present in the wound.
B) Tissues swell during inflammation because of the number of blood cells attacking the bacteria.
C) Tissues swell during inflammation because the increased permeability of capillaries causes fluids to accumulate in the area.
D) Tissues swell during inflammation only because of pus accumulation.
118) Where are B lymphocytes believed to mature in adult humans?
A) Bursa of Fabricus
B) bone marrow
C) compact bone
D) liver
119) What traits characterize antigens?
A) Antigens may be proteins, polysaccharides, glycolipids, or glycoproteins that stimulate an immune response.
B) Antigens come only from foreign microorganisms.
C) Antigens are immunoglobulins the body produces in response to exposure to foreign organisms.
D) Antigens are proteins that stimulate an immune response.
120) Which of the following molecules is not generally produced by T cells and macrophages?
A) growth-inhibiting factors
B) cytokines
C) colony-stimulating factors
D) tissue thromboplastin
121) How are B cells activated?
A) B cell is activated when it encounters an antigen that matches its B cell receptors and receives cytokines from helper T cells.
B) B cells are activated when they encounter their twin T cell component.
C) B cells are activated when red blood cells release cytokines.
D) B cells are activated when their matching antibodies attach to their surfaces and macrophages release cytokines.
122) Which type of immunoglobulin molecule is passed on to nursing infants in breast milk?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
123) Antibodies interact with antigens in all of these ways except _______________.
A) opsonization
B) attracting macrophages to the area (chemotaxis)
C) releasing interferon
D) agglutination
124) Vaccines generally confer what type of immunity?
A) artificially acquired passive immunity
B) artificially acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) naturally acquired active immunity


125) Tears contain lysozyme enzymes that can destroy bacteria.
A) True
B) False
126) Inflammation is a nonspecific defense mechanism that is caused by any cell damage.
A) True
B) False
127) Mucous membranes provide a barrier to infection mainly because of their phagocytic properties.
A) True
B) False
128) A macrophage could belong to the lymphatic and reticuloendothelial systems at the same time.
A) True
B) False
129) All phagocytes belong to the nonspecific mechanisms of defense.
A) True
B) False
130) The origin of the B cells is the bone marrow.
A) True
B) False
131) A clone is a group of cells with identical genetic properties.
A) True
B) False
132) The area designated the constant region of the immunoglobulin will bind to the antigen.
A) True
B) False
133) Immunoglobulin E can produce allergic or inflammatory reactions that are life threatening.
A) True
B) False
134) B cells usually require the presence of some activating factor before they can recognize an antigen.
A) True
B) False
135) Neutralizing antibodies cause antigens to lose their toxic properties.
A) True
B) False
136) T cells produce factors that stimulate the activity of other cells including B cells.
A) True
B) False
137) The delayed reaction allergy to a chemical is mediated by the B cell system.
A) True
B) False
138) The HIV viruses cause death from conditions such as pneumonia.
A) True
B) False
139) Immunosuppressive drugs can be used to suppress the histocompatibility complex reaction in a tissue organ or graft rejection.
A) True
B) False
140) SLE is an autoimmune disease that attacks body tissues because of a T cell activation.
A) True
B) False